Physical Science
1.
What is common among nuclear power plants,
geothermal power plants and oil-based power plant?
a.
They are renewable sources of energy
b.
They use steam to turn turbines
c.
They are easy to operate and maintain
d.
They emit the same kind of pollutants
2.
Why do mountain climbers need warm clothing and
oxygen mask on high altitude?
a.
Air is colder and thinner
b.
Air is colder and denser
c.
Air pollution is higher
d.
Wind is stronger and cooler
3.
What series of steps lead to cloud formation?
I.
Rising cold air becomes saturated
II.
Water absorbs heat from the surrounding and
evaporates
III.
Water vapour in the air begins to condense
IV.
Air rises and cools
a. II,
III, IV, I
b. I,
II, III, IV
c. I,
II, IV, III
d. II,
IV, I, III
4. Why
sea breezes are usually observed in the morning?
a.
Land tends to warm up faster than the sea
b.
There is lots of water vapour near the sea.
c.
The water in the sea is still warm in the
morning.
d.
There are no obstructions to the flow of air in
the morning.
5. Why
are the nights cooler when the sky is clear than when it is overcast?
a.
Cooler air holds fewer vapors
b.
The sun is hidden during the night.
c.
There is no cloud cover to prevent heat from
escaping.
d.
Rain falls when water vapour condense above
freezing point.
6. What
conditions bring about a temperature inversion?
a.
When the wind is calm.
b.
When warm air rises.
c.
When cool air trapped under warm air
d.
Warm air is trapped under cool air
7. In
seismology, two terms are often mentioned: focus and epicentre. Do these words
mean the same?
a.
Yes. They indicate the exact location of the
earthquake source.
b.
Yes. They describe the location where the
seismograph is located.
c.
No. the focus is where the point where the
rock first breaks while the epicentre is the point on the surface above the
focus.
d.
No. the focus describes the direction of the
earthquake wave movement with epicentre tells where the earthquake originated.
8. What
is the major difference between an ordinary mountain and a volcano?
a.
A mountain is higher than a volcano
b.
Unlike the mountains, volcanic areas cannot
support plants and animals.
c.
A volcano has a vent from which rocks and/or
molten materials are released.
d.
A volcano can be found on land and under the sea
while a mountain is always on the land.
9. Read
this statement: “an earthquake with magnitude of 6 in the Richer Scale always
causes great damage”. Is this statement ALWAYS TRUE?
a.
YES. Magnitude 6 can destroy even concrete and
steel structures.
b.
Yes. The higher the magnitude, the more energy
released and thus, more damages.
c.
No. the Richer Scale does not accurately record
the total energy released during an earthquake.
d.
No. the damage depends on how close the
epicentre is to the populated area and the type of ground and structures are
built on.
10. Which
is the BEST thing to do when you are outdoors during earthquake?
a.
Shout for help
b.
Look for a tree or post to lean on.
c.
Run towards the nearest house or building.
d.
Stay away from electric wires and posts and
similar structures.
11. Why
do people feel warmer just before it rains?
a.
Heat is released by the condensation of water
vapour.
b.
The cloud prevents heat from escaping from
Earth.
c.
The warming is due to the heat absorbed by the
evaporation of water.
d.
The increased relative humidity makes them feel
warmer.
12. The
weather forecast says that a typhoon is headed direc tly towards a locality.
Which conditions would you most likely observe?
i.
The wind speed will keep increasing and its
direction will constantly change.
ii.
The winds will suddenly stop. The winds will
then resume, coming from the opposite direction.
iii.
The atmospheric pressure will rise steadily.
iv.
Puffy cumulus clouds will appear.
a. I
b. II
c. I
and II
d. II
and IV
13. Why
is it that although water covers about 75% of earth’s surface, some people
still do not have enough water to drink?
a.
Most of the world’s water is salty.
b.
Most of our water bodies are polluted by
chemicals
c.
Most freshwater are frozen in icecaps
d.
All of the above
14. Ilocos
region has a distinct and pronounced dry season. Which occur when the
prevailing wind is the Amihan or Northeast monsoon. To the east of Ilocos
region is the Cordillera Mountain ranges. Why does Ilocos Region experienced dry season?
a.
The Amihan brings warm moist air.
b.
The Amihan brings cold moist air.
c.
Ilocos region is the windward side of
cordillera.
d.
Ilocos region is the leeward side of the
cordillera.
15. The
main factor that drives the weather is:
a. wind
b. Rain
c. Energy
from the sun
d. Air
temperature
16. Heat
from the ocean is transferred to the atmosphere mainly by
a.
The interaction of the winds and waves
b.
The return of water to the ocean as rain
c.
The condition of heat from the ocean surface to
the air above it.
d.
The evaporation of water from the ocean surface
and its condensation as clouds.
17. What
characteristic of the atmosphere is used as the basis for dividing the
atmosphere into different layers?
a.
Altitude or height
b.
Amount of zone present
c.
The kind of prevailing winds
d.
Differences in the way temperature changes with
height.
18. What
is the effect of rainfall and temperature on weathering and erosion?
a.
As rainfall and temperature increase, weathering
increases and erosion decreases.
b.
As rainfall and temperature increase, weathering
decreases and erosion increases.
c.
As rainfall and temperature increase, weathering
and erosion increase.
d.
As rainfall and temperature increase, weathering
and erosion decrease.
19. The
ar5eas in the world that have the wettest climate are located in
a.
The coastal areas in the tropics
b.
The continental areas near the poles.
c.
Large continental areas near the equator
d.
Polar regions near the oceans
20. What
characteristics can be used to classify clouds?
a.
Shape and altitude
b.
Size and altitude
c.
Shape and size
d.
Shape and rain
21. How
are sedimentary rocks formed?
a.
By compression and cementation of smaller
pieces of rocks
b.
By solidification of magma
c.
By subjecting rocks to heat and pressure
d.
By remelting and recrystallizing rocks.
22. Why
is an animal eater important to plant?
a.
They make plant eaters produce more offspring
b.
They control the population of plant eaters
c.
They prevent plant eaters from overeating
d.
They distribute plant eaters evenly in a
habitat
23. Why
do sunspots appear black when observed from the Earth?
a.
They are really black holes
b.
They are dense concentration of gasses.
c.
They are made up of black colored material like
ash
d.
They are cooler than the surrounding areas on
sun’s surface.
24. Daily,
the sun appears to rise in the east and set in the west. The same is observed
of the moon. What causes this phenomenon?
a.
Earth’s revolution around the sun
b.
Earth’s rotation on its axis
c.
The phases of the moon
d.
The moon’s revolution around Earth
25. The
moon has smaller mass than Earth. What situation supports this phenomenon?
a.
Earth does not shine as brightly as the moon.
b.
The moon has phases when seen from the Earth.
c.
An astronaut on the moon seems to jump up and
down slowly.
d.
On the moon, a feather and a bowling ball
dropped from the same height at the same time reach the ground at the same
time.
26. Which
statement describes the distance between any longtitude on the surface of
Earth?
a.
Stays the same everywhere
b.
Is longer nearer the equator
c.
Is longer near the poles
d.
Is shorter near the equator
27. The
shaking and trembling that results from a sudden movement along the a fault is
called a
a.
Tectonic earthquake
b.
Volcanic earthquake
c.
Volcanic eruption
d.
Tsunami
28. Why
is Earth’s land surface irregular despite active erosion since it was formed?
a.
Erosion is slow and sufficient
b.
Parts of the crust have been uplifted
c.
Erosion does not reduce evaluation differences.
d.
Sea level has changed with time
29. The
addition of fertilizers to a lake, e. g by runoff from lawns or agricultural
fields, will initially affect the oxygen cycle in the lake by
a.
Promoting the growth of algae
b.
Increasing the population of decomposers
c.
Causing more oxygen from the air to dissolve in
water at the lake’s surface
d. Killing the fish and invertebrates within the l
30. Two
beakers contain boiling water. Beaker A has a volume of 100 ml while beaker B
has a volume of 500 ml. Which of the following statements is true?
a.
Beaker A has more thermal energy than beaker B
b.
Beaker A has a higher temperature than beaker B
c.
Both beaker are at equal temperatures.
d.
Both beaker have the same thermal energy
31. A
red-hot iron nail is placed into a kettle of boiling water. Which statement
correctly explain the resulting heat transfer?
a.
Heat flows from the water to the iron nail
because boiling water has more thermal energy.
b.
Heat flows from the water to the iron nail since
the water molecules have higher average kinetic energy.
c.
Heat flows from the iron nail to the water
since the iron nail is higher temperature.
d.
Heat flows out of the kettle to the cooler
surrounding air.
32. (#31),
the temperature of the water has gone down to 98C. What is the temperature of
the nail?
a.
98c
b.
100c
c.
102c
d.
105c
33. Grace
wanted to see which water sample from different places/are hard. She added the
same kind and amount of soap solution into each of the water samples and shook
the containers the same number of times. Different amount of bubbles were
formed. Which container has the hardest water sample?
a.
The one with the least bubbles
b.
The one with most bubbles
c.
The one with intermediate number of bubbles
d.
None of these
34. Which
of the following best explain why a hypothesis is easier to disprove than to
prove?
a.
Formulating a hypothesis is the first step in
the application of scientific thinking to a problem; disproving a second step
is easier than disproving the first step.
b.
The scientific method does not need to be
fallowed in a experiment designed to disprove a hyphothesis.
c.
Measurements with precision can disprove a
hypothesis; measurements must have both accuracy and precision to prove the
hypothesis.
d.
One experiment may disprove a hypothesis, but
favourable results from many experiments do not necessarily prove a hypothesis.
35. A
scientific experiment is done step by step. Which of the following is the
correct scientific method of solving problems?
a.
Problem, hypothesis, testing the hypothesis,
analysis, conclusion
b.
Problem, hypothesis, testing the hypothesis,
conclusion, analysis
c.
Problem, testing the hypothesis, hypothesis,
analysis, conclusion
d.
Problem, analysis, hypothesis, testing the
hypothesis, conclusion
36. Ana
wanted to test how effective dishwashing liquid are. Which of the following is
the best question/problem for Ana to investigate?
a.
Which dishwashing liquid is the cheapest?
b.
Which dishwashing liquid can best wash the
dishes?
c.
Which dishwashing liquid is the most concentrated?
d.
Which dishwashing liquid is the most fragrant?
37. Lenny
learned in school that fertilizer affect the growth of plants. She wanted to
know how the amount of fertilizer affects the growth of plants. Which of the
following should a science student do?
a.
Observe a plant how it grows
b.
Ask a brother who has taken up biology
c.
Conduct an experiment to find out
d.
Look for the answer in a Biology book
38. Luisa
wanted to plant gumamela in her backyard. She believes that the plant will grow
faster by planting its young twig rather than its mature stem. So she planted
10 mature stem cutting and 10 young twigs cutting in a seedling bed. She
watered all the plants and observed them for two weeks. What was Luisa’s
purpose for planting 2 sets of cuttings?
a.
To compare which of the two cuttings would grow
faster
b.
To test whether both cuttings can be used
c.
To test her hypothesis
d.
All of the above
39. For
two weeks, Luisa recorded her observation in a table or chart. What did she do
with her data?
a.
Use them to formulate a hypothesis
b.
Use them to verify her conclusion
c.
Use them to interpret and make conclusion
d.
Keep them for later use
40. Which
scientific step is being done when a researcher attempts to answer the problem
through his intellect, some observation and erudition (learning through
reading)
a.
Identify the problem
b.
Make a conclusion and recommendation
c.
Formulate the hypothesis
d.
Communicate result
41. .
if you want to test the effect of fertilizers to the growth rate ogf plants,
you must plant 10 mongo seeds in each of the following pots.
I.
Pot with soil and no fertilizer
II.
Pot with soil and 5 grams of fertilizer
III.
Pot with soil and 10 grams fertilizer
IV.
Pot with soil and 15 grams fertilizer
a.
I
b.
II
c.
III
d.
All of these
42.
It is a
common belief that placing a metal object while cooking will speed up the
cooking of meat. Carlo set an experiment to find out if this is true. He
prepared three kettles with different amount of meat and the same amount of
water. He placed a spoon in one kettle; two spoons in the second and no spoon
on the third. How can you improve Carlo’s design?
a.
Use beef as meat because it takes longer time to
cook
b.
Use stainless kettle because it conducts heat
faster
c.
Place the same amount of meat in all kettles
d.
Use pork, beef and chicken instead of just one
type of meat
Refer to the table below
|
No. of turns of copper wire around an iron nail |
No. of needle pins Attracted to the nail |
|
10 |
2 |
|
15 |
3 |
|
20 |
4 |
|
25 |
5 |
|
35 |
7 |
43. What
does the data in the table show?
a.
Copper is magnetic
b.
Needle pins are made of iron
c.
The number of needles affect the number of turns
around the iron nail
d.
As the number of turns increase, more needle
pins are attracted
44. which is the easiest way to move a cart across
soft soil?
a.
Push the cart. This would give rise to a force
that would prevent the wheels from sinking into the soil.
b.
Pull the cart. This is the same as exerting an
upward and forward force that prevents the wheel from sinking into the soil.
c.
Push the cart sideways. This gives the cart more
traction making it easier to move
d.
Lift the front wheels and push. Since only
the rear wheels touch the ground, the cart would encounter less resistance.
45. A
bag of cement was raised to the top of a construction site using a single
pulley. If a double pulley is used to raised the cement to the same height, the
work done is
a.
Equal to the work done by the single pulley
b.
One half of the work done by the single pulley
c.
Double the work done by the single pulley
d.
Four times the work done by the single pulley
46. A
guava and an apple are dropped from the same height at the same time.
Disregarding air resistance, what happens before they hit the ground? The two
will have the same
a.
Potential energy
b.
Kinetic energy
c.
Velocity
d.
Momentum
47. Why
do fisher folks catch more fish during the new moon than during the full moon?
a.
Fishes look for mates during the new moon.
b.
Fishes are attracted to the light from the
fishing boat.
c.
Fishes go near the surface during new moon
because the water is warmer.
d.
Fishes are more active during the new moon
because the salt content of water is just right.
48. Secondary
waves generated by earthquake travel through liquids. Which of the following
statements is consistent with these?
a.
Much of Earth is solid
b.
Much of Earth is liquid
c.
Magma is abundant in the inner core
d.
Magma solidifies to form volcanic rocks
49. Viking,
unmanned spacecraft went to determine if the life exist here. What one test do
you think was performed in order to get the answer?
a.
Test for the presence of atmosphere
b.
Test for presence of carbon dioxide
c.
Test for presence of oxygen
d.
Test for presence of water
50. The
manager of a textile factory said it is too expensive to treat waste so he
suggested digging a hole near the factory where the wastes can be stored. Is
this environmentally safe?
a.
Yes! The liquid will pass through layers of soil
and becomes clean.
b.
Yes! The liquid become less hazardous with time.
c.
No! the liquid waste will seep into the
groundwater.
d.
No! the liquid can be recycled.
51. Which
of the following activities help reduce water pollution?
a.
Cleaning of soap instead of detergents
b.
Treating waste water before it is discharged
c.
Throwing only liquid wastes
d.
Using organic fertilizers in farms
52. Dinosaurs
lived billions of years ago. It is believed that a large object from other
space crashed to Earth and produced so much dust. The following reasons could
explain the effect of dust and caused dinosaurs to disappear from Earth EXCEPT:
a.
The habitat of dinosaurs was totally
destroyed.
b.
The stomata of plant were covered with dust and
plant died; food became scarce.
c.
Sun’s light was blocked and cooled the Earth, killing
plants and animals.
d.
All surface water were covered with solid
particles, water was not available.
53. In
the early history of Earth, the atmosphere contained much carbon dioxide and
very little oxygen. At present, oxygen is the second most abundant gas in our
atmosphere as a result of
a.
Plants which using oxygen and giving off carbon
dioxide
b.
Plants using up carbon dioxide and giving off
oxygen
c.
Animals using up oxygen and giving off carbon
dioxide
d.
Animals using up carbon dioxide and giving off
oxygen
54. Why
does the greenhouse effect result to warmer temperatures near the surface of
Earth?
a.
Clouds trap infrared radiation
b.
Ozone traps ultraviolet radiation
c.
Carbon dioxide traps infrared radiation
d.
Soil absorbs incoming radiation
55. Earth’s
surface change because of natural and man- made processes. Which of the
following is NOT a natural process?
a.
Deposition
b.
Quarrying
c.
Uplift
d.
Weathering
56. Which
of the following is true about hydrogen nuclear fusion as a potential energy
source?
a.
The process produces polluting by-products
b.
The fuel is not abundantly available
c.
The technology for large scale energy
production is currently not available
d.
The process results in a long-term radioactive
–waste storage problem.
57. Which
of the following is an outcome of both nuclear and fossil electrical generation
facilities?
a.
Thermal pollution of local streams
b.
Long term storage of toxic waste by-products
c.
Enlargement of the ozone hole on South pole
d.
Increased global warming
58. Scientist
have proposed that the burning of fossil fuels increases the concentration of
CO2 in the atmosphere. It has been
predicted that which of the following will occur if the concentration of co2
continue to rise?
a.
Earth’s surface will have increased exposure to
ultraviolet rays.
b.
The average annual surface temperature will
increase
c.
Animals will be harmed by breathing the higher
level of co2
d.
The ozone layer will disappear
59. Some
lakes in Canada and US are becoming depleted of living organisms. Which of the
following is most often the primary cause of countries with power plants that
burn fossil fuels?
a.
Nuclear waste
b.
Lowered water levels
c.
Garbage dumping
d.
Acid deposition
60. Which
of the following statements regarding the stratospheric ozone layer is
accurate?
a.
The ozone layer helps to absorbs infrared
radiation, preventing it from ereaching Earth’s surface
b.
Accumulation of chloroflorocarbons (CFCs) in
the atmosphere has led to depletion of the ozone layer because chlorine atoms
convert ozone into molecular oxygen.
c.
Depletion of the ozone layer is most apparent in
atmospheric regions above the equator; because warm temperatures accelerate the
depletion reaction.
d.
Scientist believed that if the use ozone
depleting agents is stopped, the damage to the ozone layer will repair itself
within 5 years.
61. Which
of the following is NOT a major cause of pollution in surface water and
groundwater?
a.
Landfill leachate
b.
Industrial effluent
c.
Chloroflorocarbons
d.
Agricultural chemicals
62. Manufacturers
are developing which of the following refrigerants in response to concerns over
the destruction of ozone in the atmosphere?
a.
Chlorinated methanes
b.
Chlorine-free methanes
c.
Freon
d.
Benzene
63. All
the following techniques involve the use of ionizing radiation except:
a.
X-ray imaging
b.
Magnetic resonance imaging
c.
Computer tomography (CT) imaging
d.
Radiographic fluoroscopy
64. An
underground site is being evaluated as a respiratory for the disposal of highly
radioactive waste. Which of the following would be the LEAST important factor
to consider?
a.
Climate
b.
Vulnerability to earthquake
c.
Volcanic activity
d.
Groundwater flow
65. Radon
is odourless, radioactive gas and poses a health hazard when inhaled. Which of
the following will reduce radon in the home?
a.
Using masonry outside wall
b.
Keeping the basement door closed
c.
Increasing insulation in the walls and ceiling
d.
Increasing ventilation
66. The
addition of fertilizers to a lake, e.g., by runoff from lawns or agricultural
fields, will initially affect the oxygen cycle in the lake by
a.
Promoting the growth of algae
b.
Increasing the population of decomposers
c.
Causing more oxygen from the air to dissolve in
water at the lake’s surface
d.
Killing the fish and invertebrates within the
lake
67. Which
biotechnology is the insertion of genes into an individual’s cells and tissues
to treat a disease (esp. hereditary diseases)?
a.
Viro therapy
b.
Phage therapy
c.
Gene therapy
d.
Cancer therapy
68. Which
became the ready source of insulin in mass qualities with no allergic reaction
on humans?
a.
‘Bacterial manufacturers”
b.
Escherichia coli
c.
Cows and pigs
d.
Slaughter houses or abattoir
69. Which
is a genetically identical copy of a living organism, such as the famous sheep
“DOLLY”?
a.
Transgenic
b.
Clone
c.
Transvestite
d.
Genetically modified organism
70. Which
is the massive genetic mapping effort that will identify useful marker genes at
closely spaced intervals on all chromosomes. This would be used in mapping the
many genes that will continue to be isolated and identified in the future
particularly those involved in causing disease?
a.
Karyotype
b.
Human Genome Project
c.
Mendelian inheritance
d.
Non Mendelian Inheretance
71. Which
is successful product of recombinant DNA technology?
a.
Insulin as product of bacteria for treatment of
diabetes
b.
Human growth hormone for stunted growth and
midgets
c.
Vaccine for hepatitis B
d.
All of these
72. Which
is NOT a source of stem cells or unidentified cells?
a.
Embryo
b.
Umbilical cord
c.
somatic
cells
d.
None of these
73. Which
genes can be microinjected into eggs of animals to produce larger transgenic
fishes, cows, pigs and other transgenic animals?
a.
Porcine Growth Factor
b.
Bovine Growth Hormones
c.
Suicide Genes
d.
Apolipoproteins
74. Which
concerns are under debate in creating Genetically Modified Animals?
a.
Ecological disaster awaits due to across
pollination
b.
Health vigor may arise upon eating GMOs
c.
GMOs transgenic traits may spread into wild
animals if it escapes disrupting ecological balance
d.
Both A and B
75. How
do scientists propose to prevent rejection of the organ transplant from pigs
and other animals (xenotransplantation)?
I.
Delete the pig gene from the enzyme that causes
rejection.
II.
Add human genetic materials to disguise the pig
cells as human cells.
III.
Take drugs that suppress the immune response.
IV.
Clone humans that can be source of organs.
V.
Use seaweeds that are not recognized by
antibodies
a. 1, 2, 3, and 5
b. 1
and 2
c. 1,
2, 3, 4, and 5
d. 1
only
76. Which
is not a product of recombinant DNA technology, plant cell culture or cellular
cloning?
a.
Mule from hybrid of horse and donkey
b.
Painkillers from poison frogs and anticoagulants
from ticks
c.
Dolly and Polly
d.
Antioxidant enzyme from fungus
77. Which
bacterium is adept at the chemical process that has been genetically engineered
to use components of oil spills as a food source?
a.
Pseudomonas sp
b.
Agrobacter tumefaciens
c.
Saccharomyces cereviside
d.
Acetobacter oryzae
78. What
is the moral issue in using stem cells or undifferentiated cells found in human
embryo for gene therapy?
a.
There are stem cells in the bone marrow which
all blood cells are derived
b.
Embryological cells may not be able to
differentiate once implanted with other cells.
c.
To be able to get the unspecialized cells
from the embryo, the embryo must be aborted.
d.
There is no moral issue because embryos are not
considered human yet.
79. Which
type of immunization are vaccines for tetanus and whooping cough?
i.
Artificial
ii.
Natural
iii.
Chemical killed
iv.
Attenuated
v.
Active
vi.
Passive
a. I,
III, and V
b. II,
IV and VI
c. I,
IV and VI
d. II,
III, and VI
80. Which
of these statements describes an Igneous rock?
a.
It is usually formed in layers
b.
It contains remains of plants and animals
c.
It is formed sedimentary and metamorphic rocks
d.
It is formed from magma that cooled below the
Earth’s surface
81. While
digging the ground, some men found a large of rock. They broke off a piece and
saw some fossils in it. What kind of rocks was it?
a.
Igneous
b.
Sedimentary
c.
Metamorphic
d.
Extrusive igneous
82. Which
of these is classified as igneous rock?
a.
Sandstone
b.
Marble
c.
Granite
d.
Limestone
83. What
kind of rocks is formed from sediments deposited in bodies of water?
a.
Extrusive rock
b.
Igneous rock
c.
Metamorphic rock
d.
Sedimentary
84. Which
describes a metamorphic rock?
a.
It is very hard
b.
It has several layers
c.
It is formed under the Earth’s surface
d.
It consists of large crystals of minerals
85. What
causes weathering?
a.
Plants
b.
Human activities
c.
Elements of weather
d.
All of these
86. From
what kind of rock is a metamorphic rock formed?
a.
Igneous rock
b.
Sedimentary rock
c.
Metamorphic rock
d.
All of these
87. Which
of the following processes is not aided by solar energy?
a.
Rock cycle
b.
Water cycle
c.
Weathering
d.
None of these
88. Which
of the following is a part of the water cycle/
a.
Evaporation
b.
Condensation
c.
Precipitation
d.
All of these
89. Which
can aid in the formation of metamorphic rock?
a.
They all contain fossils
b.
They are formed by compaction
c.
They are deposited in bodies of water
d.
they are composed of small particles
90. which
is the characteristic of intrusive rocks?
a.
They usually large
b.
They are found on Earth’s surface
c.
They are located under a layer of sedimentary
rock.
d.
All of these
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