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Thursday, January 12, 2023

Updated Reviewer for Licensure Exam for Teacher (LET) Physical Science

      

Physical Science

 

1.       What is common among nuclear power plants, geothermal power plants and oil-based power plant?

a.       They are renewable sources of energy

b.       They use steam to turn turbines

c.       They are easy to operate and maintain

d.       They emit the same kind of pollutants

 

2.       Why do mountain climbers need warm clothing and oxygen mask on high altitude?

a.       Air is colder and thinner

b.       Air is colder and denser

c.       Air pollution is higher

d.       Wind is stronger and cooler

 

3.       What series of steps lead to cloud formation?

I.         Rising cold air becomes saturated

II.       Water absorbs heat from the surrounding and evaporates

III.     Water vapour in the air begins to condense

IV.    Air rises and cools

 

a.       II, III, IV, I

b.       I, II, III, IV

c.       I, II, IV, III

d.       II, IV, I, III

 

4.       Why sea breezes are usually observed in the morning?

a.       Land tends to warm up faster than the sea

b.       There is lots of water vapour near the sea.

c.       The water in the sea is still warm in the morning.

d.       There are no obstructions to the flow of air in the morning.

 

5.       Why are the nights cooler when the sky is clear than when it is overcast?

a.       Cooler air holds fewer vapors

b.       The sun is hidden during the night.

c.       There is no cloud cover to prevent heat from escaping.

d.       Rain falls when water vapour condense above freezing point.


6.       What conditions bring about a temperature inversion?

a.       When the wind is calm.

b.       When warm air rises.

c.       When cool air trapped under warm air

d.       Warm air is trapped under cool air

 

7.       In seismology, two terms are often mentioned: focus and epicentre. Do these words mean the same?

a.       Yes. They indicate the exact location of the earthquake source.

b.       Yes. They describe the location where the seismograph is located.

c.       No. the focus is where the point where the rock first breaks while the epicentre is the point on the surface above the focus.

d.       No. the focus describes the direction of the earthquake wave movement with epicentre tells where the earthquake originated.

 

8.       What is the major difference between an ordinary mountain and a volcano?

a.       A mountain is higher than a volcano

b.       Unlike the mountains, volcanic areas cannot support plants and animals.

c.       A volcano has a vent from which rocks and/or molten materials are released.

d.       A volcano can be found on land and under the sea while a mountain is always on the land.

 

9.       Read this statement: “an earthquake with magnitude of 6 in the Richer Scale always causes great damage”. Is this statement ALWAYS TRUE?

a.       YES. Magnitude 6 can destroy even concrete and steel structures.

b.       Yes. The higher the magnitude, the more energy released and thus, more damages.

c.       No. the Richer Scale does not accurately record the total energy released during an earthquake.

d.       No. the damage depends on how close the epicentre is to the populated area and the type of ground and structures are built on.

 

10.   Which is the BEST thing to do when you are outdoors during earthquake?

a.       Shout for help

b.       Look for a tree or post to lean on.

c.       Run towards the nearest house or building.

d.       Stay away from electric wires and posts and similar structures.

 

11.   Why do people feel warmer just before it rains?

a.       Heat is released by the condensation of water vapour.

b.       The cloud prevents heat from escaping from Earth.

c.       The warming is due to the heat absorbed by the evaporation of water.

d.       The increased relative humidity makes them feel warmer.

 

12.   The weather forecast says that a typhoon is headed directly towards a locality. Which conditions would you most likely observe?

i.         The wind speed will keep increasing and its direction will constantly change.

ii.       The winds will suddenly stop. The winds will then resume, coming from the opposite direction.

iii.     The atmospheric pressure will rise steadily.

iv.     Puffy cumulus clouds will appear.

 

a.       I

b.       II

c.       I and II

d.       II and IV

 

13.   Why is it that although water covers about 75% of earth’s surface, some people still do not have enough water to drink?

a.       Most of the world’s water is salty.

b.       Most of our water bodies are polluted by chemicals

c.       Most freshwater are frozen in icecaps

d.       All of the above

 

14.   Ilocos region has a distinct and pronounced dry season. Which occur when the prevailing wind is the Amihan or Northeast monsoon. To the east of Ilocos region is the Cordillera Mountain ranges. Why does Ilocos Region experienced dry season?

a.       The Amihan brings warm moist air.

b.       The Amihan brings cold moist air.

c.       Ilocos region is the windward side of cordillera.

d.       Ilocos region is the leeward side of the cordillera.

 

15.   The main factor that drives the weather is:

a.        wind

b.       Rain

c.       Energy from the sun

d.       Air temperature

 

16.   Heat from the ocean is transferred to the atmosphere mainly by

a.       The interaction of the winds and waves

b.       The return of water to the ocean as rain

c.       The condition of heat from the ocean surface to the air above it.

d.       The evaporation of water from the ocean surface and its condensation as clouds.

 

17.   What characteristic of the atmosphere is used as the basis for dividing the atmosphere into different layers?

a.       Altitude or height

b.       Amount of zone present

c.       The kind of prevailing winds

d.       Differences in the way temperature changes with height.

 

18.   What is the effect of rainfall and temperature on weathering and erosion?

a.       As rainfall and temperature increase, weathering increases and erosion decreases.

b.       As rainfall and temperature increase, weathering decreases and erosion increases.

c.       As rainfall and temperature increase,weathering and erosion increase.

d.       As rainfall and temperature increase, weathering and erosion decrease.

 

19.   The ar5eas in the world that have the wettest climate are located in

a.       The coastal areas in the tropics

b.       The continental areas near the poles.

c.       Large continental areas near the equator

d.       Polar regions near the oceans

 

20.   What characteristics can be used to classify clouds?

a.       Shape and altitude

b.       Size and altitude

c.       Shape and size

d.       Shape and rain

 

21.   How are sedimentary rocks formed?

a.       By compression and cementation of smaller pieces of rocks

b.       By solidification of magma

c.       By subjecting rocks to heat and pressure

d.       By remelting and recrystallizing rocks.

 

22.   Why is an animal eater important to plant?

a.       They make plant eaters produce more offspring

b.       They control the population of plant eaters

c.       They prevent plant eaters from overeating

d.       They distribute plant eaters evenly in a habitat

 

23.   Why do sunspots appear black when observed from the Earth?

a.       They are really black holes

b.       They are dense concentration of gasses.

c.       They are made up of black colored material like ash

d.       They are cooler than the surrounding areas on sun’s surface.

24.   Daily, the sun appears to rise in the east and set in the west. The same is observed of the moon. What causes this phenomenon?

a.       Earth’s revolution around the sun

b.       Earth’s rotation on its axis

c.       The phases of the moon

d.       The moon’s revolution around Earth

 

25.   The moon has smaller mass than Earth. What situation supports this phenomenon?

a.       Earth does not shine as brightly as the moon.

b.       The moon has phases when seen from the Earth.

c.       An astronaut on the moon seems to jump up and down slowly.

d.       On the moon, a feather and a bowling ball dropped from the same height at the same time reach the ground at the same time.

 

26.   Which statement describes the distance between any longtitude on the surface of Earth?

a.       Stays the same everywhere

b.       Is longer nearer the equator

c.       Is longer near the poles

d.       Is shorter near the equator

 

27.   The shaking and trembling that results from a sudden movement along the a fault is called a

a.       Tectonic earthquake

b.       Volcanic earthquake

c.       Volcanic eruption

d.       Tsunami

 

28.   Why is Earth’s land surface irregular despite active erosion since it was formed?

a.       Erosion is slow and sufficient

b.       Parts of the crust have been uplifted

c.       Erosion does not reduce evaluation differences.

d.       Sea level has changed with time

 

29.   The addition of fertilizers to a lake, e. g by runoff from lawns or agricultural fields, will initially affect the oxygen cycle in the lake by

a.       Promoting the growth of algae

b.       Increasing the population of decomposers

c.       Causing more oxygen from the air to dissolve in water at the lake’s surface

d.       Killing the fish and invertebrates within the lake

 

 

30.   Two beakers contain boiling water. Beaker A has a volume of 100 ml while beaker B has a volume of 500 ml. Which of the following statements is true?

a.       Beaker A has more thermal energy than beaker B

b.       Beaker A has a higher temperature than beaker B

c.       Both beaker are at equal temperatures.

d.       Both beaker have the same thermal energy

 

31.   A red-hot iron nail is placed into a kettle of boiling water. Which statement correctly explain the resulting heat transfer?

a.       Heat flows from the water to the iron nail because boiling water has more thermal energy.

b.       Heat flows from the water to the iron nail since the water molecules have higher average kinetic energy.

c.       Heat flows from the iron nail to the water since the iron nail is higher temperature.

d.       Heat flows out of the kettle to the cooler surrounding air.

 

32.   (#31), the temperature of the water has gone down to 98C. What is the temperature of the nail?

a.       98c

b.       100c

c.       102c

d.       105c

 

33.   Grace wanted to see which water sample from different places/are hard. She added the same kind and amount of soap solution into each of the water samples and shook the containers the same number of times. Different amount of bubbles were formed. Which container has the hardest water sample?

a.       The one with the least bubbles

b.       The one with most bubbles

c.       The one with intermediate number of bubbles

d.       None of these

 

34.   Which of the following best explain why a hypothesis is easier to disprove than to prove?

a.       Formulating a hypothesis is the first step in the application of scientific thinking to a problem; disproving a second step is easier than disproving the first step.

b.       The scientific method does not need to be fallowed in a experiment designed to disprove a hyphothesis.

c.       Measurements with precision can disprove a hypothesis; measurements must have both accuracy and precision to prove the hypothesis.

d.       One experiment may disprove a hypothesis, but favourable results from many experiments do not necessarily prove a hypothesis.

 

 

35.   A scientific experiment is done step by step. Which of the following is the correct scientific method of solving problems?

a.       Problem, hypothesis, testing the hypothesis, analysis, conclusion

b.       Problem, hypothesis, testing the hypothesis, conclusion, analysis

c.       Problem, testing the hypothesis, hypothesis, analysis, conclusion

d.       Problem, analysis, hypothesis, testing the hypothesis,  conclusion

 

36.   Ana wanted to test how effective dishwashing liquid are. Which of the following is the best question/problem for Ana to investigate?

a.       Which dishwashing liquid is the cheapest?

b.       Which dishwashing liquid can best wash the dishes?

c.       Which dishwashing liquid is the most concentrated?

d.       Which dishwashing liquid is the most fragrant?

 

37.   Lenny learned in school that fertilizer affect the growth of plants. She wanted to know how the amount of fertilizer affects the growth of plants. Which of the following should a science student do?

a.       Observe a plant how it grows

b.       Ask a brother who has taken up biology

c.       Conduct an experiment to find out

d.       Look for the answer in a Biology book

 

38.   Luisa wanted to plant gumamela in her backyard. She believes that the plant will grow faster by plantingits young twig rather than its mature stem. So she planted 10 mature stem cutting and 10 young twigs cutting in a seedling bed. She watered all the plants and observed them for two weeks. What was Luisa’s purpose for planting 2 sets of cuttings?

a.       To compare which of the two cuttings would grow faster

b.       To test whether both cuttings can be used

c.       To test her hypothesis

d.       All of the above

 

39.   For two weeks, Luisa recorded her observation in a table or chart. What did she do with her data?

a.       Use them to formulate a hypothesis

b.       Use them to verify her conclusion

c.       Use them to interpret and make conclusion

d.       Keep them for later use

 

40.   Which scientific step is being done when a researcher attempts to answer the problem through his intellect, some observation and erudition (learning through reading)

a.       Identify the problem

b.       Make a conclusion and recommendation

c.       Formulate the hypothesis

d.       Communicate result

 

41.   . if you want to test the effect of fertilizers to the growth rate ogf plants, you must plant 10 mongo seeds in each of the following  pots.

I.         Pot with soil and no fertilizer

II.       Pot with soil and 5 grams of fertilizer

III.     Pot with soil and 10 grams fertilizer

IV.    Pot with soil and 15 grams fertilizer

 

a.       I

b.       II

c.       III

d.       All of these

 

42.    It is a common belief that placing a metal object while cooking will speed up the cooking of meat. Carlo set an experiment to find out if this is true. He prepared three kettles with different amount of meat and the same amount of water. He placed a spoon in one kettle; two spoons in the second and no spoon on the third. How can you improve Carlo’s design?

a.       Use beef as meat because it takes longer time to cook

b.       Use stainless kettle because it conducts heat faster

c.       Place the same amount of meat in all kettles

d.       Use pork, beef and chicken instead of just one type of meat

 

 

Refer to the table below

No. of turns of copper wire

around an iron nail

No. of needle pins

Attracted to the nail

10

2

15

3

20

4

25

5

35

7

 

 

43.   What does the data in the table show?

a.       Copper is magnetic

b.       Needle pins are made of iron

c.       The number of needles affect the number of turns around the iron nail

d.       As the number of turns increase, more needle pins are attracted

44.   which is the easiest way to move a cart across soft soil?

a.       Push the cart. This would give rise to a force that would prevent the wheels from sinking into the soil.

b.       Pull the cart. This is the same as exerting an upward and forward force that prevents the wheel from sinking into the soil.

c.       Push the cart sideways. This gives the cart more traction making it easier to move

d.       Lift the front wheels and push. Since only the rear wheels touch the ground, the cart would encounter less resistance.

 

45.   A bag of cement was raised to the top of a construction site using a single pulley. If a double pulley is used to raised the cement to the same height, the work done is

a.       Equal to the work done by the single pulley

b.       One half of the work done by the single pulley

c.       Double the work done by the single pulley

d.       Four times the work done by the single pulley

 

46.   A guava and an apple are dropped from the same height at the same time. Disregarding air resistance, what happens before they hit the ground? The two will have the same

a.       Potential energy

b.       Kinetic energy

c.       Velocity

d.       Momentum

 

47.   Why do fisher folks catch more fish during the new moon than during the full moon?

a.       Fishes look for mates during the new moon.

b.       Fishes are attracted to the light from the fishing boat.

c.       Fishes go near the surface during new moon because the water is warmer.

d.       Fishes are more active during the new moon because the salt content of water is just right.

 

48.   Secondary waves generated by earthquake travel through liquids. Which of the following statements is consistent with these?

a.       Much of Earth is solid

b.       Much of Earth is liquid

c.       Magma is abundant in the inner core

d.       Magma solidifies to form volcanic rocks

49.   Viking, unmanned spacecraft went to determine if the life exist here. What one test do you think was performed in order to get the answer?

a.       Test for the presence of atmosphere

b.       Test for presence of carbon dioxide

c.       Test for presence of oxygen

d.       Test for presence of water

 

50.   The manager of a textile factory said it is too expensive to treat waste so he suggested digging a hole near the factory where the wastes can be stored. Is this environmentally safe?

a.       Yes! The liquid will pass through layers of soil and becomes clean.

b.       Yes! The liquid become less hazardous with time.

c.       No! theliquid waste will seep into the groundwater.

d.       No! the liquid can be recycled.

 

51.   Which of the following activities help reduce water pollution?

a.       Cleaning of soap instead of detergents

b.       Treating waste water before it is discharged

c.       Throwing only liquid wastes

d.       Using organic fertilizers in farms

 

52.   Dinosaurs lived billions of years ago. It is believed that a large object from other space crashed to Earth and produced so much dust. The following reasons could explain the effect of dust and caused dinosaurs to disappear from Earth EXCEPT:

a.       The habitat of dinosaurs was totally destroyed.

b.       The stomata of plant were covered with dust and plant died; food became scarce.

c.       Sun’s light was blocked and cooled the Earth, killing plants and animals.

d.       All surface water were covered with solid particles, water was not available.

 

53.   In the early history of Earth, the atmosphere contained much carbon dioxide and very little oxygen. At present, oxygen is the second most abundant gas in our atmosphere as a result of

a.       Plants which using oxygen and giving off carbon dioxide

b.       Plants using up carbon dioxide and giving off oxygen

c.       Animals using up oxygen and giving off carbon dioxide

d.       Animals using up carbon dioxide and giving off oxygen

 

54.   Why does the greenhouse effect result to warmer temperatures near the surface of Earth?

a.       Clouds trap infrared radiation

b.       Ozone traps ultraviolet radiation

c.       Carbon dioxide traps infrared radiation

d.       Soil absorbs incoming radiation

 

55.   Earth’s surface change because of natural and man- made processes. Which of the following is NOT a natural process?

a.       Deposition

b.       Quarrying

c.       Uplift

d.       Weathering

 

56.   Which of the following is true about hydrogen nuclear fusion as a potential energy source?

a.       The process produces polluting by-products

b.       The fuel is not abundantly available

c.       The technology for large scale energy production is currently not available

d.       The process results in a long-term radioactive –waste storage problem.

 

57.   Which of the following is an outcome of both nuclear and fossil electrical generation facilities?

a.       Thermal pollution of local streams

b.       Long term storage of toxic waste by-products

c.       Enlargement of the ozone hole on South pole

d.       Increased global warming

 

58.   Scientist have proposed that the burning of fossil fuels increases the concentration of CO2  in the atmosphere. It has been predicted that which of the following will occur if the concentration of co2 continue to rise?

a.       Earth’s surface will have increased exposure to ultraviolet rays.

b.       The average annual surface temperature will increase

c.       Animals will be harmed by breathing the higher level of co2

d.       The ozone layer will disappear

 

59.   Some lakes in Canada and US are becoming depleted of living organisms. Which of the following is most often the primary cause of countries with power plants that burn fossil fuels?

a.       Nuclear waste

b.       Lowered water levels

c.       Garbage dumping

d.       Acid deposition

 

60.   Which of the following statements regarding the stratospheric ozone layer is accurate?

a.       The ozone layer helps to absorbs infrared radiation, preventing it from ereaching Earth’s surface

b.       Accumulation of chloroflorocarbons (CFCs) in the atmosphere has led to depletion of the ozone layer because chlorine atoms convert ozone into molecular oxygen.

c.       Depletion of the ozone layer is most apparent in atmospheric regions above the equator; because warm temperatures accelerate the depletion reaction.

d.       Scientist believed that if the use ozone depleting agents is stopped, the damage to the ozone layer will repair itself within 5 years.

 

61.   Which of the following is NOT a major cause of pollution in surface water and groundwater?

a.       Landfill leachate

b.       Industrial effluent

c.       Chloroflorocarbons

d.       Agricultural chemicals

 

62.   Manufacturers are developing which of the following refrigerants in response to concerns over the destruction of ozone in the atmosphere?

a.       Chlorinated methanes

b.       Chlorine-free methanes

c.       Freon

d.       Benzene

 

63.   All the following techniques involve the use of ionizing radiation except:

a.       X-ray imaging

b.       Magnetic resonance imaging

c.       Computer tomography (CT) imaging

d.       Radiographic fluoroscopy

 

64.   An underground site is being evaluated as a respiratory for the disposal of highly radioactive waste. Which of the following would be the LEAST important factor to consider?

a.       Climate

b.       Vulnerability to earthquake

c.       Volcanic activity

d.       Groundwater flow

 

65.   Radon is odourless, radioactive gas and poses a health hazard when inhaled. Which of the following will reduce radon in the home?

a.       Using masonry outside wall

b.       Keeping the basement door closed

c.       Increasing insulation in the walls and ceiling

d.       Increasing ventilation

 

66.   The addition of fertilizers to a lake, e.g., by runoff from lawns or agricultural fields, will initially affect the oxygen cycle in the lake by

a.       Promoting the growth of algae

b.       Increasing the population of decomposers

c.       Causing more oxygen from the air to dissolve in water at the lake’s surface

d.       Killing the fish and invertebrates within the lake

67.   Which biotechnology is the insertion of genes into an individual’s cells and tissues to treat a disease (esp. hereditary diseases)?

a.       Viro therapy

b.       Phage therapy

c.       Gene therapy

d.       Cancer therapy

 

68.   Which became the ready source of insulin in mass qualities with no allergic reaction on humans?

a.       Bacterial manufacturers”

b.       Escherichia coli

c.       Cows and pigs

d.       Slaughter houses or abattoir

 

69.   Which is a genetically identical copy of a living organism, such as the famous sheep “DOLLY”?

a.       Transgenic

b.       Clone

c.       Transvestite

d.       Genetically modified organism

 

70.   Which is the massive genetic mapping effort that will identify useful marker genes at closely spaced intervals on all chromosomes. This would be used in mapping the many genes that will continue to be isolated and identified in the future particularly those involved in causing disease?

a.       Karyotype

b.       Human Genome Project

c.       Mendelian inheritance

d.       Non MendelianInheretance

 

71.   Which is successful product of recombinant DNA technology?

a.       Insulin as product of bacteria for treatment of diabetes

b.       Human growth hormone for stunted growth and midgets

c.       Vaccine for hepatitis B

d.       All of these

 

72.   Which is NOT a source of stem cells or unidentified cells?

a.       Embryo

b.       Umbilical cord

c.       somatic cells

d.       None of these

 

73.   Which genes can be microinjected into eggs of animals to produce larger transgenic fishes, cows, pigs and other transgenic animals?

a.       Porcine Growth Factor

b.       Bovine Growth Hormones

c.       Suicide Genes

d.       Apolipoproteins

 

74.   Which concerns are under debate in creating Genetically Modified Animals?

a.       Ecological disaster awaits due to across pollination

b.       Health vigor may arise upon eating GMOs

c.       GMOs transgenic traits may spread into wild animals if it escapes disrupting ecological balance

d.       Both A and B

 

75.   How do scientists propose to prevent rejection of the organ transplant from pigs and other animals (xenotransplantation)?

I.         Delete the pig gene from the enzyme that causes rejection.

II.       Add human genetic materials to disguise the pig cells as human cells.

III.     Take drugs that suppress the immune response.

IV.    Clone humans that can be source of organs.

V.      Use seaweeds that are not recognized by antibodies

 

a.        1, 2, 3, and 5

b.       1 and 2

c.       1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

d.       1 only

 

76.   Which is not a product of recombinant DNA technology, plant cell culture or cellular cloning?

a.       Mule from hybrid of horse and donkey

b.       Painkillers from poison frogs and anticoagulants from ticks

c.       Dolly and Polly

d.       Antioxidant enzyme from fungus

 

77.   Which bacterium is adept at the chemical process that has been genetically engineered to use components of oil spills as a food source?

a.       Pseudomonas sp

b.       Agrobactertumefaciens

c.       Saccharomyces cereviside

d.       Acetobacteroryzae

 

78.   What is the moral issue in using stem cells or undifferentiated cells found in human embryo for gene therapy?

a.       There are stem cells in the bone marrow which all blood cells are derived

b.       Embryological cells may not be able to differentiate once implanted with other cells.

c.       To be able to get the unspecialized cells from the embryo, the embryo must be aborted.

d.       There is no moral issue because embryos are not considered human yet.

 

79.   Which type of immunization are vaccines for tetanus and whooping cough?

i.         Artificial

ii.       Natural

iii.     Chemical killed

iv.     Attenuated

v.       Active

vi.     Passive

 

a.       I, III, and V

b.       II, IV and VI

c.       I, IV and VI

d.       II, III, and VI

 

80.   Which of these statements describes an Igneous rock?

a.       It is usually formed in layers

b.       It contains remains of plants and animals

c.       It is formed sedimentary and metamorphic rocks

d.       It is formed from magma that cooled below the Earth’s surface

 

81.   While digging the ground, some men found a large of rock. They broke off a piece and saw some fossils in it. What kind of rocks was it?

a.       Igneous

b.       Sedimentary

c.       Metamorphic

d.       Extrusive igneous

 

82.   Which of these is classified as igneous rock?

a.       Sandstone

b.       Marble

c.       Granite

d.       Limestone

 

 

83.   What kind of rocks is formed from sediments deposited in bodies of water?

a.       Extrusive rock

b.       Igneous rock

c.       Metamorphic rock

d.       Sedimentary

 

84.   Which describes a metamorphic rock?

a.       It is very hard

b.       It has several layers

c.       It is formed under the Earth’s surface

d.       It consists of large crystals of minerals

 

85.   What causes weathering?

a.       Plants

b.       Human activities

c.       Elements of weather

d.       All of these

 

86.   From what kind of rock is a metamorphic rock formed?

a.       Igneous rock

b.       Sedimentary rock

c.       Metamorphic rock

d.       All of these

 

87.   Which of the following processes is not aided by solar energy?

a.       Rock cycle

b.       Water cycle

c.       Weathering

d.       None of these

 

88.   Which of the following is a part of the water cycle/

a.       Evaporation

b.       Condensation

c.       Precipitation

d.       All of these

 

89.   Which can aid in the formation of metamorphic rock?

a.       They all contain fossils

b.       They are formed by compaction

c.       They are deposited in bodies of water

d.       they are composed of small particles

 

90.   which is the characteristic of intrusive rocks?

a.       They usually large

b.       They are found on Earth’s surface

c.       They are located under a layer of sedimentary rock.

d.       All of these

 

91.   Which of the following is NOT a way of conserving water?

a.       Fixing leaky faucets

b.       Taking a shower instead of bath

c.       Turning off the faucet and using a glass when brushing your teeth

d.       Washing your clothes twice a week instead of doing it every day.

 

92.   What does a simple machine do?

a.       Increases the amount of work required to perform a task

b.       Decreases the amount of work required to perform a task

c.       Requires the same amount of work to complete a task but is automated so that it does the work for you

d.       Reduces the force or effort required to do a task or changes the direction of force used to perform a task

 

93.   In which of the following does the solar eclipse occur?

a.       The Earth’s shadow falls on the moon

b.       The Moon’s shadow falls on the Earth

c.       The Earth moves between the sun and the moon

d.       Venus is between the sun and the Earth

 

94.   Which of the following describes a producer?

a.       Make their own food

b.       Break down dead organism for food

c.       Eat other organism for food

d.       All of the above