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Wednesday, September 8, 2021

Professional Education

           Professional Education  

1. Which Republic Act provides government assistance to students and teachers in private education? 

a. RA 7836                  

b. RA 7784            

 c. RA 6728               

 d. RA 6675 

2.    In the preamble of the CODE of ethics for Professional Teachers, which of the following teacher descriptions is included in the Code of Ethics for Professional Teachers? 

a. With satisfactory teaching performance 

b. Passed the licensure exams for teachers 

c. Duly licensed professional 

d. Persons of dignity and reputation 


3.    Which stage according to Erickson is the stage of trust and mistrust? 

a. Young adulthood                c. Adolescence      b. Early childhood                  d. Infancy 


4.    In the history of education system, including that of the Philippines, which system was first and last remained a partner of other systems of education?  

 a. Formal   

b. Non-formal 

c. Informal   

d. Pre-school 


5.    Who among the following subscribe to the theory that the good, the true and the beautiful are universally valid in all places at all times? 

a.    Realists and idealists           

b.    Realist and existentialists              

 c.    Pragmatists and idealists          

d.    Pragmatists and realists 


6.    The 1987 Constitution mandates the state to encourage among others self-learning, independent and out-of-school study programs particularly those that respond to community needs. Which is an off shoot of this mandate? 

a. Institutionalization of early childhood care and development  

b. Principal empowerment program 

c. Multi-grade teaching 

d. Practices of community-based learning 

7.    Authors claim that education is given greater in the 1987 Philippine Constitution than in the past Constitution. Which article provision on education is found only in the 1987 Constitution? 

a. Support to teacher education 

b. Provision on assigning the highest budget priority to education 

c. The establishment of the integrated system of education 

d. The creation of CHED 

8.    According to Hurlock, studies of children’s play revealed that toy play reaches its peak during the 

a. Middle childhood years                     

b. Early childhood years             

 c. Babyhood  

d. Late childhood 

9.    In a DECS memorandum issued last 1998, the new name for multi-grade class is: 

a. A.Friendly school           

 b. School-of-the-future     

 c. Paaralan ng bahay  

d. Escuela nueva 

 

10. The student-centered curriculum belongs to which group of educators? 

a. Reconstructionist-Essentialist 

b. Progressivist, Perennialist     

c. Perennialist, Essentialist       

 d. Progressivist, Reconstructionist 


11. Daniel Goleman talks about emotional intelligence. Which of the following characterize a student with a high degree of emotional intelligence? 

a. Sensitive to points of view and feeling of others 

b. Prodded by others 

c. Obsessed with achieving at any cost 

d. Unable to delay gratification 


12. The history of curriculum development includes the hidden curriculum approach. Which is the content emphasis of the hidden curriculum? 

a. Students experiences and activities 

 b. Implicit processes and social norms 

c. Student needs and interest 

d. Introspection and choice 


13. Teacher T is concerned with conceptual matters since reality is mental teacher T’s thinking is quite- 

a. Realistic                 

b. pragmatic

c. existential           

d. Idealistic 


14. The authoritarian setting in the Filipino home is reinforced by a classroom teacher who- 

a. Asks open –ended questions 

b. Encourages pupils to ask questions 

c. Prescribes what pupils should do  

d. Is open to suggestions 


15. A number of researches found that the effects of maternal employment on children’s achievement are- 

a. Hardly established           

b. Positive and negative          

 c. Fully established      

d. Negative 


16. Which one correctly describes the phenomenon of latchkey children? 

a. They turn to empty homes after school either to sit by the television or to roam the streets 

b. They are truant school children 

c. They are engaged in child labor 

d. They are engaged in child labor 


17. Teacher Q regards the student as a spiritual entity and as part of the larger spiritual universe. To what philosophy does teacher Q subscribe? 

a. Idealism                    

b. Existentialism  

c. Realism           

d. Pragmatism 


18. The 1987 Constitution mandates the state to assign the highest budgetary priority to- 

a. Health                     

b. Education                 

c. Social work  

d. defense 


19. Moral development in early childhood is characterized by- 

a. Questioning rules

 b. Willful disobedience of rules 

c. Acting out of conviction 

d. Acting without knowing why they do so

 

20. According to Piaget, by adolescence boys and girls must have reached what stage? 

a. Concrete operations stage 

b. Sensorimotor stage 

c. Formal operations stage 

d. Pre-operational stage 


21. Ruth dances well. She can figure out how something works or how to fix something that is broken, without asking for help. Based on Garden’s theory of multiple intelligence under what intelligence is she strong? 

a. Musical                    

b. Logical-mathematical 

c. Spatial intelligence 

d. Kinesthetic intelligence

 

22. Who among the following believes that learning requires disciplined attention regular homework, and respect for legitimate authority? 

a. Reconstructionist         

b. Perennialist                

c. Essetialist 

d. Progressivist  


23. Which developmental task is expected of the adolescent according to havughurst? 

a. Achieving new and more mature relations with age-mates of both sexes 

b. Skilled games 

c. Getting started in an occupation 

d. Learning to get along with age-mates 


24. Mr. Roy wants his pupils to be creative. Which of the following will he REFRAIN from doing? 

a. Heighten the student’s sense of unusual 

b. Develops students’ ability to recognize and analyze problems and relationships 

c. Encourage sustained attention in an area of interest 

d. Develop solely skill mastery

 

25. The creation of Student’s Loan Fund to give equal opportunity to all persons who desire to pursue higher education is the essence of: 

a. RA 6014                  

b. RA  7836 

c. RA 6655                

d. RA 7784 


26. In his/her teaching, Teacher D moves from particular instances to tentative generalizations that are Subjected to further verification. Teacher D engages himself/herself in: 

a.  Intuition                   

b. Inductive logic  

c. Deductive logic    

d. Philosophical analysis 


27. Which of the correct statement of emotional intelligence is based on Daniel Goleman’s theory? 

a. Emotional intelligence is feeling approximately and effectively 

b. Emotional intelligence id being nice to people 

c. Emotional intelligence is giving free rein to feeling 

d. Emotional intelligence changes less considerably than IQ through life. 


28. Which of the following is not a subject-centered curriculum? 

a. Perennialist 

b. back to basic               

b. values centered            

d. Subject area 


29. Which program is assisted financially by the World Bank and OECF and is meant for the improvement of elementary education in the SRA provinces? 

a. Program for Decentralized Education     

b. First Elementary Education Project     

c. Kinesthetic intelligence 

d. Second Elementary Education Project 


30. Mr. Z, A fifty-five year old American citizen, even though very educationally qualified to be president an educational institution in third country cannot be appointed as President because: He_____ 

a. Does not belong to a religious group   

b. Is nearing retirement           

c. Is not Filipino Citizen      

d. Is not an official of a corporation

 

31. Which of the following is not a hazard to the mastery of developmental tasks? 

a. Unfavorable social judgment 

b. Bypassing of stage of development as a result of failure to master the tasks for that stage of development 

c. Crisis when individuals pass from on stage to another 

d. Inappropriate or impossible expectations 


32. Teacher U emphasizes to her students the importance of deep personal reflection on one’s commitments and choices. Teacher U subscribes to which Philosophy? 

a. Realism

b. Idealism                   

c. Existentialism                       

d.  Pragmatism 


33. The constitutional provision on language has the following aims, Except:      

 a.    To make Filipino the national language and medium of instruction   and official communication       b.    To make the regional dialect as auxiliary media of instructions in regional schools         

c.    To make Filipino the sole medium of instruction         

d.    To maintain English as a second language 

 

34. Which periods in the life span of an individual are characterized by growth spurt? 

a. Early childhood and adolescence    

b. Prenatal period and early childhood 

c. Early childhood   

d. Pre-natal and puberty 


35. The introduction of non-formal education in line with the Constitutional Provision on: 

a. Protection of teachers 

b. Promoting the rights of all citizens to make quality education accessible to all  

c. Optional religious instructions 

d. Promoting the rights of all citizens to quality education at all levels 


36. Teacher X is often times frustrated. The students in her class hardly volunteer to recite and to do other learning-related task. This is a proof of the Filipino’s: 

a. Sense of humor         

b. Lack of resourcefulness  

c. Lack of reflection 

d. Passivity and lack of initiative 

 

37. The tendency to emphasize so much on school beautification to the detriment of pupil’s performance illustrated the: 

a. Filipino’s sense of humor 

b. Filipino’s lack of reflection 

c. Filipino’s love for “ Porma” at the expense of substance  

d. Filipino’s lack of seriousness 


38. A president body to study Philippines education created by virtue of Executive Order No. 46 during the incumbency of DECS secretary Andrew Gonzales with an aim to study Philippine Education is the: 

a. Presidential Commission on Educational Reform 

b. Philippine Commission to Survey Philippine Education 

c. Survey to outcomes of elementary Education 

d. Commission on Philippine Education 


39. Which is a danger signal of adolescent mal-adjustment? 

a. Inappropriate body-build 

b. Irresponsibility as shown in neglect of studies in favor of having a good time 

c. Attraction to the opposite sex 

d. Prolonged treatment as children

 

40. To democratize access to secondary education, public secondary education was made free. In whose presidency was this implemented? 

a. Ferdinand Marcos     

b. Joseph Estrada   

c. Corazon C. Aquino          

 d. Fidel Ramos  


41. Which is not a characteristic of democratic discipline? 

a. Child obeys blindly 

b. Child understands the meaning of rules 

c. Child is given punishment us related to the misdeed 

d. Child has opportunity to express his/her opinion

 

42. The three A’s of happiness according to Hurlock are: 

a. Adjustments, affection, altruism   

b. Attitude, ability, adjustment  

c. Acceptance, affection, and achievement 

d. Affection, ability, attitude 


43. Babyhood is often referred to as a “ Critical period” in the development of personality because: 

a. At this time the foundations are laid upon which the adult personality structure will be built 

b. Changes in the personality pattern take place

 c. The brain grows and develops at such an accelerated rate during babyhood  

d. At this time the baby is exposed to many hazards both physical and psychological 


44. Who among the following stressed the processes of experiences and problem solving? 

a. Plato                    

b. Hegel 

c. Dewey                    

d. Aristotle 


45. Teacher L believes that creation of knowledge in by way of the learners’ interaction with their environment. Teacher L is more of: 

a. An idealist                

b. A pragmatist

c. An existentialis          

d. A realist 


46. To reach out clientele who cannot be in the classroom for one reason or another, which of the following was established 

a. Non-formal education 

b. Informal education      

c. Pre-school education  

d. formal education 


47. The encouragement of self-learning, independent, and out-of-school study programs as stated in the 1987 constitution has given rise to: 

a. The implementation of open universities and distance learning programs 

b. Institutionalization of early childhood care and development  

c. The conduct of NEAT and NSAT 

d. The clamor for a Grade VII 


48. Which of the following statement on developmental tasks is wrong? 

a. Failure to master developmental tasks at a certain developmental stage has far reaching consequences in a person’s development  

b. The mastery of development tasks is a result of physical maturation, societal pressure and individual’s aspiration 

c. There are essential skills expected to be acquired and mastered in each developmental stage 

d. Retirees are not expected to work on mastering certain develop mental tasks 


49. The 1987 Philippines Constitution states the following, Except: 

a. The official languages of the Philippines are Filipino and English 

b. The national language of the Philippines is Filipino 

c. Filipino is the Tagalog of the Tagalog –speaking provinces 

d. The government shall initiate and sustain the use of Filipino as a medium of official communication and as a language of instruction in the education system 


50. Which among the following has been said to play an irreplaceable role in the education of the young?               

a. community                 

c. school               

b. church                       

 d. Home 

               

51. For the drill method to be effective there should be: 

a. Much practice on a few skills  

b. Little practices on few skills  

c. Much practice on many skills  

d. Little practice on many skills 


52. Which of the following classroom management practices runs counter to the reality therapy approach of William Glasser? 

a. The teacher asks a misbehaving student what he or she is doing 

b. Teacher requires the students to prepare a plan in writing and sign it as means of increasing personal motivation to maintain and fulfill the plan 

c. The teacher evaluates pupil’s behavior as good or bad 

d. Teacher assists the students in making realistic plans to   change behavior  


53. Which of the following does not apply to mastery learning? 

a. It makes use of varied instructional time for different groups of students 

b. It makes use of norm-reference tests 

c. It is effective in teaching basic skills 

d. It requires the use of carefully crafted instructional objective 


54. The teacher’s role in problem solving methods is: 

a. To test the conclusions  

b. To set up the problem

 c. To propose ways of obtaining the needed data 

d. To help the learners what is it that is being solved 


55. To nurture creativity in student, teacher should: 

a. Vary the length and difficulty of question 

b. Allow for one-minute wait-time    

c. Ask convergent questions 

d. Emphasize the necessity of giving right answers

 

56. The content of a good lesson plan is self-sufficient. This means that: 

a. The content should match with student’s aptitude 

b. The content should help students learn how to learn 

c. The content should be broad and treated thoroughly 

d. The content should be verifiable 


57. Which one can NOT help individuals reduce their own fears about change? 

a. Reflect on the extent of change in one’s life so far and how it has coped with 

b. Identify shortfalls in skills or knowledge and take action to remedy them 

c. Identify skills which will be useful in a new situation 

d. Keep feeling of anxiety to themselves 


58. The following are generating thinking skills, Except: 

a. Connecting new ideas    

b. Predicting   

c. classifying     

d. Inferring  


59. Mrs. Valdez wants to generates as many ideas as she can as the class is about to embark on a community outreach program. Which of the following will she employ? 

a. role playing     

b. brainstorming

c. brainwashing   

d. simulation 

 

60. Which teaching practice will most likely decrease learner’s attention? 

a. Questioning    

b. Assessing learning as an integral part of            instruction   

c. Assessing learning as an integral part of instruction       

d. Teaching by telling 


61. For efficiency, if in the process of teaching a teacher realizes that too little has been planned, which of the following may she NOT do? 

a. Discuss possible problems of the new assignment. 

b. Pose additional questions to explore various facets of the content 

c. Drill the students on the major points of the lesson.  

d. Give a quiz 


62. Correct practice makes perfect. This maxim is based on Thorndike’s law of exercise and the finding that reinforcement of a response increases the likelihood its occurrence. Whose research finding is the underlined statement? 

a. Skinner   

b. Bruner

c. Palo        

d. Lewin 


63. Here is a lesson objective: Given a microscope and a slide, the students must be able to focus the prepared slide. Applying Robert F. Mager’s principle, which does this lesson objective lack? 

a. Criterion measure 

b. Condition

c. performance   

d. time element 


64. Which is a focusing thinking skill? 

a. Identifying key concepts 

b. Summarizing   

c. Obtaining information 

d. Clarifying through inquiry 


65. In the use of television in the classroom, which of the following should be avoided? 

a. The TV program lasts the whole class period. 

b. There is a pre-viewing orientation 

 c. Select programs that match the learners’ level of interest and maturity 

d. Life should be left on if students are to take notes 

 

66. Based on Victor Lowenfield’s classification, which sequence in the developmental stages of children in art is followed? 

a. Scribbling stage, pre-schematic stage, schematic stage, dawning realism stage, pseudo-realistic stage b. Scribbling stage, pre-schematic stage, schematic stage, pseudorealistic stage, dawning realism stage c. Pre-schematic stage, schematic stage, scribbling stage, pseudorealistic stage, dawning realism stage d. Pre-schematic, schematic stage, scribbling dawning realism stage, pseudo-realistic stage 

67. In relation to teacher’s ratings research suggests the following, Except one: 

a. Teachers favor self-evaluation over all other forms of evaluation 

 b. Peer and supervisory evaluation are not reliable  

c. Student raters of teachers are more reliable and valid than other raters 

d. Student work and test outcomes are supplementary sources for evaluating teachers 


68. Suppose defined 3 levels of computer-assisted instruction: dialogue, tutoring, practice-drill. Which ones are two higher levels in the correct order? 

a. Tutoring and dialogue  

b. Practices-drill and tutoring  

c. Dialogue and tutoring 

d. Practice-drill and dialogue

 

69. In what condition is the use of the lecture method appropriate? 

a. Higher cognitive learning is sought     

b. The information is not available     

c. The subject matter is quite easy       

d. Long term learning is desired

 

70. Which refers to the time when students learn at a maximum level? 

a. Wait time   

b. Engaged time   

c. Allocated time  

d. Academic learning time 


71. What is a sign of the underachiever in the classroom? 

a. Resist authority and carry on a power struggle with a teacher. 

b. Holds back from class participant unless sure of self 

c. Frustrated about quality of work 

d. Minimum work output.

 

72. If after calling on a number of students, a teacher is unable to obtain the desired response, what should teacher do? 

a. Ask leading questions  

b. Re-teach parts of the lesson that need re-teaching      

c. Probe student’s answers. 

d. Rephrase the questions 


73. For global competitiveness, a school must embark on a proactive change. Which one is a characteristic of proactive change? 

a. radical and inventive

b. imitative of others 

c. late in the game

d. problem-driven 


74. Which guideline on the use of the chalkboard should a teacher AVOID? 

a. Establish routine uses for the chalkboard 

b. While writing, proceed from right to left 

c. Don’t talk to the chalkboard while writing on it 

d. Limit your board writing to major ideas 


75. To teach the democratic process to the pupils, Mabuhay Elementary School decided that the election of class and school officers shall be patterned after local election of the class and school officers shall be patterned after local election process. There are qualifications set for  candidates, limited period for campaign and rules for postingcampaign materials, etc. Which of the following did the school use?  

a. Simulation        

b. Philips 66 

c. role playing             

d. Symposium 


76. Which is NOT a characteristic of preventive discipline. 

a. Proactive            

 b. Anticipatory

c. Inventive   

d. Reactive. 


77. One criterion that has been proposed in the selection and organization of content in the development section of a lesson plan is balance. When does lesson content   possess balance. 

a. The content should have practical application for the learners 

b. The content is not cluttered by masses of more trivial content 

c. The content should enable the learners to experience the broad sweep of content and give them the opportunity to go deeper 

d. The content should help student learns how to learn

 

78. The burnout malady gets worse if a teacher doesn’t intervene to change whatever areas he or she can control. Which one can renew a teachers enthusiasm. 

a. Engage in self-pity   

b.  Stick to the job 

c.  Judge someone else as wrong 

d. Initiate changes in job. 


79. Although learning can take place anywhere and anytime, the more systematic the teacher, the greater the probability for success. This points out the need for teachers to: 

a. Specify their objectives         

b. Plan their lessons 

c. Set their teaching priorities 

d. Select their instructional materials 


80. Below are teachers effective classroom management  practices, Except One. 

a. Teachers make sure students understand and follow rules and procedures 

b. Disruptive  behavior is handled every weekend 

c. Teachers clearly establish consequences for not following rules 

d. Teachers spend more time in the beginning of the year explaining and reminding students of rules. 

81. A teacher’s summary of a lesson serves the following functions except; 

a. It links the parts of the less 

b. It makes provisions for full participation of the students 

c. It clinches the basic ideas or concepts of the lesson 

d. It brings together the information that has been discussed 


82. Which ones are projected visuals? 

a. Graphs on a book   c. Realias    

b. Models

c. realias             

d. Slides

 

83. The lesson is on the pros and cons of capital punishment. Mr. Milan wants to do high level thinking and to develop a view of capital punishment from a different perspective. Which technique will be most appropriate? 

a. Lecture              

b. Simulation

c. Role playing    

d. Panel discussion 


84. Which is used to emphasize individualized instruction? 

a. Tutorial group    c. Inquiry group  

b. Philips  66

c. Inquiry group   

d. Task group

 

85. Here a question: FROM THE DATA PRESENTED FORM GENERALIZATIONS THAT ARE SUPPORTED BY THE DATA. Under what type of question does this test item fall? 

a. Evaluate   

b. Convergent   

c. Divergent 

d. Application 


86. Ms. Estira cannot bring her pupils to the sea for a lesson on marine community. Which of the following will be closest to an actual experience of marine community? 

a. Motion picture on marine community 

b. Description of marine community  

c. Pictures of marine community 

d. Taped lesson of marine community 

 

87. Which can NoT help organizations reduces fears about change? 

a. By training people in new skills  

b. By keeping people informed about plans 

c. By cladestine moves     

d. By consultation 


88. After a lesson in air pollution, teacher C gives each pupil mimeographed sheets, which contain statements to which each is expected to react. Examples of these statements are. Do you in any way contribute to air pollution? What solutions do you propose to minimize, if not eliminate, air pollution. Then the students are grouped for sharing.  In this case what does the teacher make use of _______              

 a. Value sheet         

b.  Conflict story

c. Rank ordering            

d. Contrived incident 

 

89. Which orders consist of the goal-oriented instructional model? 

a. Pre-assessment, specification of objectives, pre-assessment, instruction, evaluation 

b. Specification of objectives, pre-assessment, instruction evaluation 

c. Pre-assessment, specification of objectives, instruction, evaluation 

d. Specification of objectives, evaluation, pre-assessment, instruction 


90. Teacher B’s lesson was on abortion. She wanted to get her student’s  maximum participation and reaction. She showed slides on abortion accompanied by an audiotape that presented the reasons for and against abortion. Teacher took a stand in favor of abortion and came up with all her justifications. At the end, however, she made clear her stand on abortion. Which did the teacher use? 

a. She made use of value clarifying discussion  

b. She made use of contrived incident  

c. She made use of simulation 

d.  She played  the role of the devil’s advocate

 

91. In on of the pages of her reference material, Ms. Estrada finds the life cycle of a frog. Assuming that the following are available to her, the quickest way to effectively present the life cycle of a frog to the class is by way of 

a. An overhead projector    

b. An opaque projector 

c. Describing the life cycle  

d. A drawing on the chalkboard 

92. Below are questions that must be considered in developing  appropriate  learning activities/ experience, Except one 

a. Do the experiences encourage pupils to inquire further? 

b. Do the experiences save the pupils from learning difficulties? 

c. Can be experiences profit the pupils? 

d. Are the experiences in accordance with an increasing amount of learning? 


93. Which order of the senses goes with an increasing amount of learning? 

a. Sight, hearing, touch, taste and smell 

b. Taste  and smell, sight , touch, hearing 

c. Taste  and smell, touch, sight, hearing 

d. Taste and smell,  touch, hearing, sight 


94. Which of the following statements on peer tutoring is true? 

a. Teacher  has time  with more severe learning problems 

b. The atmosphere is threatening 

c. The social skills of pear tutors  are not enhanced 

d. the peer tutor’s  achievement goes down 


95. A lesson in Philippines history was presented by Mrs. Palaroan by making her class view a videotape on EDSA revolution. The videotape which Mrs. Palaroan used in class points to what property of instructional media? 

a. Manipulative  

b. Multi-sensory

c. Fixative        

d. Distributive 


96. Read the following teacher-student- situation. Teacher: Why is the process called photosynthesis? Student: I don’t know. Which questioning technique should the teacher use? 

a. Concept            

b. Prompting 

c. clarification           

d.  Multiple response

 

97. Miss Lee’s objective is to focus student’s attention on and quickly create interest in a problem or concept. She makes use of: 

a. Task group              

b. Panel discussion

c. tutorial group      

d. Philips 66 


98. The content of the lesson must be feasible. This means that: 

a. The lesson should be interesting to the student 

b. The lesson must be within the capacity of the students  

c. The teacher must considered the time needed and resources available 

d. The lesson must be useful 


99. Which questioning behavior is appropriate: 

a. Not allowing  a student to complete a long response 

b. Repeating all student’s response 

c. Allowing choral responses 

d. Asking varied questions 


100.      Research on teacher effective practices has shown the following except: 

a. Planning has title impact on student learning 

b. Questioning strategies are ineffective monitoring technique 

c. Teaching procedures on classroom routines early in the school year are essential 

d. Directives should be few and best delivered in a casual manner 

 


Answer Key  

1. C 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. D 6. D 7. B 8. D 9. B 10. C 11. A 12. B 13. D 14. C 15. A 16. A 17. B 18. B 19. D 20. C 21. D 22. B 23. A 24. D 25. A 26. B 27. A 28. C 29. A 30. C 31. C 32. C 33. C 

34. A 35. B 36. D 37. C 38. A 39. B 40. C 41. A 42. C 43. A 44. C 45. D 46. A 47. A 48. D 49. A 50. D 51. A 52. A 53. B 54. D 55. A 56. B 57. C 58. B 59. B 60. D 61. D 62. A 63. A 64. B 65. B 66. A 67. B 

68. B 69. B 70. A 71. B 72. D 73. A 74. C 75. A 76. D 77. C 78.D 79. B 80. B 81. B 82. D 83. D 84. A 85. A 86. A 87.C 88. A 89. C 90. D 91. D 92. B 93. D 94. A 95. B 96. C 97. B 98. B 99. D 100. C 

 

Physical Science (LET)

            

Physical Science

 

1.       What is common among nuclear power plants, geothermal power plants and oil-based power plant?

a.       They are renewable sources of energy

b.      They use steam to turn turbines

c.       They are easy to operate and maintain

d.      They emit the same kind of pollutants

 

2.       Why do mountain climbers need warm clothing and oxygen mask on high altitude?

a.       Air is colder and thinner

b.      Air is colder and denser

c.       Air pollution is higher

d.      Wind is stronger and cooler

 

3.       What series of steps lead to cloud formation?

I.        Rising cold air becomes saturated

II.      Water absorbs heat from the surrounding and evaporates

III.    Water vapour in the air begins to condense

IV.    Air rises and cools

 

a.       II, III, IV, I

b.      I, II, III, IV

c.       I, II, IV, III

d.      II, IV, I, III

 

4.       Why sea breezes are usually observed in the morning?

a.       Land tends to warm up faster than the sea

b.      There is lots of water vapour near the sea.

c.       The water in the sea is still warm in the morning.

d.      There are no obstructions to the flow of air in the morning.

 

5.       Why are the nights cooler when the sky is clear than when it is overcast?

a.       Cooler air holds fewer vapors

b.      The sun is hidden during the night.

c.       There is no cloud cover to prevent heat from escaping.

d.      Rain falls when water vapour condense above freezing point.

 

6.       What conditions bring about a temperature inversion?

a.       When the wind is calm.

b.      When warm air rises.

c.       When cool air trapped under warm air

d.      Warm air is trapped under cool air

 

7.       In seismology, two terms are often mentioned: focus and epicentre. Do these words mean the same?

a.       Yes. They indicate the exact location of the earthquake source.

b.      Yes. They describe the location where the seismograph is located.

c.       No. the focus is where the point where the rock first breaks while the epicentre is the point on the surface above the focus.

d.      No. the focus describes the direction of the earthquake wave movement with epicentre tells where the earthquake originated.

 

8.       What is the major difference between an ordinary mountain and a volcano?

a.       A mountain is higher than a volcano

b.      Unlike the mountains, volcanic areas cannot support plants and animals.

c.       A volcano has a vent from which rocks and/or molten materials are released.

d.      A volcano can be found on land and under the sea while a mountain is always on the land.

 

9.       Read this statement: “an earthquake with magnitude of 6 in the Richer Scale always causes great damage”. Is this statement ALWAYS TRUE?

a.       YES. Magnitude 6 can destroy even concrete and steel structures.

b.      Yes. The higher the magnitude, the more energy released and thus, more damages.

c.       No. the Richer Scale does not accurately record the total energy released during an earthquake.

d.      No. the damage depends on how close the epicentre is to the populated area and the type of ground and structures are built on.

 

10.   Which is the BEST thing to do when you are outdoors during earthquake?

a.       Shout for help

b.      Look for a tree or post to lean on.

c.       Run towards the nearest house or building.

d.      Stay away from electric wires and posts and similar structures.

 

11.   Why do people feel warmer just before it rains?

a.       Heat is released by the condensation of water vapour.

b.      The cloud prevents heat from escaping from Earth.

c.       The warming is due to the heat absorbed by the evaporation of water.

d.      The increased relative humidity makes them feel warmer.

 

12.   The weather forecast says that a typhoon is headed direc tly towards a locality. Which conditions would you most likely observe?

i.         The wind speed will keep increasing and its direction will constantly change.

ii.       The winds will suddenly stop. The winds will then resume, coming from the opposite direction.

iii.      The atmospheric pressure will rise steadily.

iv.     Puffy cumulus clouds will appear.

 

a.       I

b.      II

c.       I and II

d.      II and IV

 

13.   Why is it that although water covers about 75% of earth’s surface, some people still do not have enough water to drink?

a.       Most of the world’s water is salty.

b.      Most of our water bodies are polluted by chemicals

c.       Most freshwater are frozen in icecaps

d.      All of the above

 

14.   Ilocos region has a distinct and pronounced dry season. Which occur when the prevailing wind is the Amihan or Northeast monsoon. To the east of Ilocos region is the Cordillera Mountain ranges. Why does  Ilocos Region experienced dry season?

a.       The Amihan brings warm moist air.

b.      The Amihan brings cold moist air.

c.       Ilocos region is the windward side of cordillera.

d.      Ilocos region is the leeward side of the cordillera.

 

15.   The main factor that drives the weather is:

a.        wind

b.      Rain

c.       Energy from the sun

d.      Air temperature

 

16.   Heat from the ocean is transferred to the atmosphere mainly by

a.       The interaction of the winds and waves

b.      The return of water to the ocean as rain

c.       The condition of heat from the ocean surface to the air above it.

d.      The evaporation of water from the ocean surface and its condensation as clouds.

 

17.   What characteristic of the atmosphere is used as the basis for dividing the atmosphere into different layers?

a.       Altitude or height

b.      Amount of zone present

c.       The kind of prevailing winds

d.      Differences in the way temperature changes with height.

 

18.   What is the effect of rainfall and temperature on weathering and erosion?

a.       As rainfall and temperature increase, weathering increases and erosion decreases.

b.      As rainfall and temperature increase, weathering decreases and erosion increases.

c.       As rainfall and temperature increase, weathering and erosion increase.

d.      As rainfall and temperature increase, weathering and erosion decrease.

 

19.   The ar5eas in the world that have the wettest climate are located in

a.       The coastal areas in the tropics

b.      The continental areas near the poles.

c.       Large continental areas near the equator

d.      Polar regions near the oceans

 

20.   What characteristics can be used to classify clouds?

a.       Shape and altitude

b.      Size and altitude

c.       Shape and size

d.      Shape and rain

 

21.   How are sedimentary rocks formed?

a.       By compression and cementation of smaller pieces of rocks

b.      By solidification of magma

c.       By subjecting rocks to heat and pressure

d.      By remelting and recrystallizing rocks.

 

22.   Why is an animal eater important to plant?

a.       They make plant eaters produce more offspring

b.      They control the population of plant eaters

c.       They prevent plant eaters from overeating

d.      They distribute plant eaters evenly in a habitat

 

23.   Why do sunspots appear black when observed from the Earth?

a.       They are really black holes

b.      They are dense concentration of gasses.

c.       They are made up of black colored material like ash

d.      They are cooler than the surrounding areas on sun’s surface.

24.   Daily, the sun appears to rise in the east and set in the west. The same is observed of the moon. What causes this phenomenon?

a.       Earth’s revolution around the sun

b.      Earth’s rotation on its axis

c.       The phases of the moon

d.      The moon’s revolution around Earth

 

25.   The moon has smaller mass than Earth. What situation supports this phenomenon?

a.       Earth does not shine as brightly as the moon.

b.      The moon has phases when seen from the Earth.

c.       An astronaut on the moon seems to jump up and down slowly.

d.      On the moon, a feather and a bowling ball dropped from the same height at the same time reach the ground at the same time.

 

26.   Which statement describes the distance between any longtitude on the surface of Earth?

a.       Stays the same everywhere

b.      Is longer nearer the equator

c.       Is longer near the poles

d.      Is shorter near the equator

 

27.   The shaking and trembling that results from a sudden movement along the a fault is called a

a.       Tectonic earthquake

b.      Volcanic earthquake

c.       Volcanic eruption

d.      Tsunami

 

28.   Why is Earth’s land surface irregular despite active erosion since it was formed?

a.       Erosion is slow and sufficient

b.      Parts of the crust have been uplifted

c.       Erosion does not reduce evaluation differences.

d.      Sea level has changed with time

 

29.   The addition of fertilizers to a lake, e. g by runoff from lawns or agricultural fields, will initially affect the oxygen cycle in the lake by

a.       Promoting the growth of algae

b.      Increasing the population of decomposers

c.       Causing more oxygen from the air to dissolve in water at the lake’s surface

d.      Killing the fish and invertebrates within the l

30.   Two beakers contain boiling water. Beaker A has a volume of 100 ml while beaker B has a volume of 500 ml. Which of the following statements is true?

a.       Beaker A has more thermal energy than beaker B

b.      Beaker A has a higher temperature than beaker B

c.       Both beaker are at equal temperatures.

d.      Both beaker have the same thermal energy

 

31.   A red-hot iron nail is placed into a kettle of boiling water. Which statement correctly explain the resulting heat transfer?

a.       Heat flows from the water to the iron nail because boiling water has more thermal energy.

b.      Heat flows from the water to the iron nail since the water molecules have higher average kinetic energy.

c.       Heat flows from the iron nail to the water since the iron nail is higher temperature.

d.      Heat flows out of the kettle to the cooler surrounding air.

 

32.   (#31), the temperature of the water has gone down to 98C. What is the temperature of the nail?

a.       98c

b.      100c

c.       102c

d.      105c

 

33.   Grace wanted to see which water sample from different places/are hard. She added the same kind and amount of soap solution into each of the water samples and shook the containers the same number of times. Different amount of bubbles were formed. Which container has the hardest water sample?

a.       The one with the least bubbles

b.      The one with most bubbles

c.       The one with intermediate number of bubbles

d.      None of these

 

34.   Which of the following best explain why a hypothesis is easier to disprove than to prove?

a.       Formulating a hypothesis is the first step in the application of scientific thinking to a problem; disproving a second step is easier than disproving the first step.

b.      The scientific method does not need to be fallowed in a experiment designed to disprove a hyphothesis.

c.       Measurements with precision can disprove a hypothesis; measurements must have both accuracy and precision to prove the hypothesis.

d.      One experiment may disprove a hypothesis, but favourable results from many experiments do not necessarily prove a hypothesis.

 

 

35.   A scientific experiment is done step by step. Which of the following is the correct scientific method of solving problems?

a.       Problem, hypothesis, testing the hypothesis, analysis, conclusion

b.      Problem, hypothesis, testing the hypothesis, conclusion, analysis

c.       Problem, testing the hypothesis, hypothesis, analysis, conclusion

d.      Problem, analysis, hypothesis, testing the hypothesis,  conclusion

 

36.   Ana wanted to test how effective dishwashing liquid are. Which of the following is the best question/problem for Ana to investigate?

a.       Which dishwashing liquid is the cheapest?

b.      Which dishwashing liquid can best wash the dishes?

c.       Which dishwashing liquid is the most concentrated?

d.      Which dishwashing liquid is the most fragrant?

 

37.   Lenny learned in school that fertilizer affect the growth of plants. She wanted to know how the amount of fertilizer affects the growth of plants. Which of the following should a science student do?

a.       Observe a plant how it grows

b.      Ask a brother who has taken up biology

c.       Conduct an experiment to find out

d.      Look for the answer in a Biology book

 

38.   Luisa wanted to plant gumamela in her backyard. She believes that the plant will grow faster by planting its young twig rather than its mature stem. So she planted 10 mature stem cutting and 10 young twigs cutting in a seedling bed. She watered all the plants and observed them for two weeks. What was Luisa’s purpose for planting 2 sets of cuttings?

a.       To compare which of the two cuttings would grow faster

b.      To test whether both cuttings can be used

c.       To test her hypothesis

d.      All of the above

 

39.   For two weeks, Luisa recorded her observation in a table or chart. What did she do with her data?

a.       Use them to formulate a hypothesis

b.      Use them to verify her conclusion

c.       Use them to interpret and make conclusion

d.      Keep them for later use

 

 

40.   Which scientific step is being done when a researcher attempts to answer the problem through his intellect, some observation and erudition (learning through reading)

a.       Identify the problem

b.      Make a conclusion and recommendation

c.       Formulate the hypothesis

d.      Communicate result

 

41.   . if you want to test the effect of fertilizers to the growth rate ogf plants, you must plant 10 mongo seeds in each of the following  pots.

I.        Pot with soil and no fertilizer

II.      Pot with soil and 5 grams of fertilizer

III.    Pot with soil and 10 grams fertilizer

IV.    Pot with soil and 15 grams fertilizer

 

a.       I

b.      II

c.       III

d.      All of these

 

42.    It is a common belief that placing a metal object while cooking will speed up the cooking of meat. Carlo set an experiment to find out if this is true. He prepared three kettles with different amount of meat and the same amount of water. He placed a spoon in one kettle; two spoons in the second and no spoon on the third. How can you improve Carlo’s design?

a.       Use beef as meat because it takes longer time to cook

b.      Use stainless kettle because it conducts heat faster

c.       Place the same amount of meat in all kettles

d.      Use pork, beef and chicken instead of just one type of meat

 

 

Refer to the table below

No. of turns of copper wire

around an iron nail

No. of needle pins

Attracted to the nail

10

2

15

3

20

4

25

5

35

7

 

 

43.   What does the data in the table show?

a.       Copper is magnetic

b.      Needle pins are made of iron

c.       The number of needles affect the number of turns around the iron nail

d.      As the number of turns increase, more needle pins are attracted

44.    which is the easiest way to move a cart across soft soil?

a.       Push the cart. This would give rise to a force that would prevent the wheels from sinking into the soil.

b.      Pull the cart. This is the same as exerting an upward and forward force that prevents the wheel from sinking into the soil.

c.       Push the cart sideways. This gives the cart more traction making it easier to move

d.      Lift the front wheels and push. Since only the rear wheels touch the ground, the cart would encounter less resistance.

 

45.   A bag of cement was raised to the top of a construction site using a single pulley. If a double pulley is used to raised the cement to the same height, the work done is

a.       Equal to the work done by the single pulley

b.      One half of the work done by the single pulley

c.       Double the work done by the single pulley

d.      Four times the work done by the single pulley

 

46.   A guava and an apple are dropped from the same height at the same time. Disregarding air resistance, what happens before they hit the ground? The two will have the same

a.       Potential energy

b.      Kinetic energy

c.       Velocity

d.      Momentum

 

47.   Why do fisher folks catch more fish during the new moon than during the full moon?

a.       Fishes look for mates during the new moon.

b.      Fishes are attracted to the light from the fishing boat.

c.       Fishes go near the surface during new moon because the water is warmer.

d.      Fishes are more active during the new moon because the salt content of water is just right.

 

48.   Secondary waves generated by earthquake travel through liquids. Which of the following statements is consistent with these?

a.       Much of Earth is solid

b.      Much of Earth is liquid

c.       Magma is abundant in the inner core

d.      Magma solidifies to form volcanic rocks

49.   Viking, unmanned spacecraft went to determine if the life exist here. What one test do you think was performed in order to get the answer?

a.       Test for the presence of atmosphere

b.      Test for presence of carbon dioxide

c.       Test for presence of oxygen

d.      Test for presence of water

 

50.   The manager of a textile factory said it is too expensive to treat waste so he suggested digging a hole near the factory where the wastes can be stored. Is this environmentally safe?

a.       Yes! The liquid will pass through layers of soil and becomes clean.

b.      Yes! The liquid become less hazardous with time.

c.       No! the liquid waste will seep into the groundwater.

d.      No! the liquid can be recycled.

 

51.   Which of the following activities help reduce water pollution?

a.       Cleaning of soap instead of detergents

b.      Treating waste water before it is discharged

c.       Throwing only liquid wastes

d.      Using organic fertilizers in farms

 

52.   Dinosaurs lived billions of years ago. It is believed that a large object from other space crashed to Earth and produced so much dust. The following reasons could explain the effect of dust and caused dinosaurs to disappear from Earth EXCEPT:

a.       The habitat of dinosaurs was totally destroyed.

b.      The stomata of plant were covered with dust and plant died; food became scarce.

c.       Sun’s light was blocked and cooled the Earth, killing plants and animals.

d.      All surface water were covered with solid particles, water was not available.

 

53.   In the early history of Earth, the atmosphere contained much carbon dioxide and very little oxygen. At present, oxygen is the second most abundant gas in our atmosphere as a result of

a.       Plants which using oxygen and giving off carbon dioxide

b.      Plants using up carbon dioxide and giving off oxygen

c.       Animals using up oxygen and giving off carbon dioxide

d.      Animals using up carbon dioxide and giving off oxygen

 

54.   Why does the greenhouse effect result to warmer temperatures near the surface of Earth?

a.       Clouds trap infrared radiation

b.      Ozone traps ultraviolet radiation

c.       Carbon dioxide traps infrared radiation

d.      Soil absorbs incoming radiation

 

55.   Earth’s surface change because of natural and man- made processes. Which of the following is NOT a natural process?

a.       Deposition

b.      Quarrying

c.       Uplift

d.      Weathering

 

56.   Which of the following is true about hydrogen nuclear fusion as a potential energy source?

a.       The process produces polluting by-products

b.      The fuel is not abundantly available

c.       The technology for large scale energy production is currently not available

d.      The process results in a long-term radioactive –waste storage problem.

 

57.   Which of the following is an outcome of both nuclear and fossil electrical generation facilities?

a.       Thermal pollution of local streams

b.      Long term storage of toxic waste by-products

c.       Enlargement of the ozone hole on South pole

d.      Increased global warming

 

58.   Scientist have proposed that the burning of fossil fuels increases the concentration of CO2  in the atmosphere. It has been predicted that which of the following will occur if the concentration of co2 continue to rise?

a.       Earth’s surface will have increased exposure to ultraviolet rays.

b.      The average annual surface temperature will increase

c.       Animals will be harmed by breathing the higher level of co2

d.      The ozone layer will disappear

 

59.   Some lakes in Canada and US are becoming depleted of living organisms. Which of the following is most often the primary cause of countries with power plants that burn fossil fuels?

a.       Nuclear waste

b.      Lowered water levels

c.       Garbage dumping

d.      Acid deposition

 

60.   Which of the following statements regarding the stratospheric ozone layer is accurate?

a.       The ozone layer helps to absorbs infrared radiation, preventing it from ereaching Earth’s surface

b.      Accumulation of chloroflorocarbons (CFCs) in the atmosphere has led to depletion of the ozone layer because chlorine atoms convert ozone into molecular oxygen.

c.       Depletion of the ozone layer is most apparent in atmospheric regions above the equator; because warm temperatures accelerate the depletion reaction.

d.      Scientist believed that if the use ozone depleting agents is stopped, the damage to the ozone layer will repair itself within 5 years.

 

61.   Which of the following is NOT a major cause of pollution in surface water and groundwater?

a.       Landfill leachate

b.      Industrial effluent

c.       Chloroflorocarbons

d.      Agricultural chemicals

 

62.   Manufacturers are developing which of the following refrigerants in response to concerns over the destruction of ozone in the atmosphere?

a.       Chlorinated methanes

b.      Chlorine-free methanes

c.       Freon

d.      Benzene

 

63.   All the following techniques involve the use of ionizing radiation except:

a.       X-ray imaging

b.      Magnetic resonance imaging

c.       Computer tomography (CT) imaging

d.      Radiographic fluoroscopy

 

64.   An underground site is being evaluated as a respiratory for the disposal of highly radioactive waste. Which of the following would be the LEAST important factor to consider?

a.       Climate

b.      Vulnerability to earthquake

c.       Volcanic activity

d.      Groundwater flow

 

65.   Radon is odourless, radioactive gas and poses a health hazard when inhaled. Which of the following will reduce radon in the home?

a.       Using masonry outside wall

b.      Keeping the basement door closed

c.       Increasing insulation in the walls and ceiling

d.      Increasing ventilation

 

66.   The addition of fertilizers to a lake, e.g., by runoff from lawns or agricultural fields, will initially affect the oxygen cycle in the lake by

a.       Promoting the growth of algae

b.      Increasing the population of decomposers

c.       Causing more oxygen from the air to dissolve in water at the lake’s surface

d.      Killing the fish and invertebrates within the lake

67.   Which biotechnology is the insertion of genes into an individual’s cells and tissues to treat a disease (esp. hereditary diseases)?

a.       Viro therapy

b.      Phage therapy

c.       Gene therapy

d.      Cancer therapy

 

68.   Which became the ready source of insulin in mass qualities with no allergic reaction on humans?

a.       Bacterial manufacturers”

b.      Escherichia coli

c.       Cows and pigs

d.      Slaughter houses or abattoir

 

69.   Which is a genetically identical copy of a living organism, such as the famous sheep “DOLLY”?

a.       Transgenic

b.      Clone

c.       Transvestite

d.      Genetically modified organism

 

70.   Which is the massive genetic mapping effort that will identify useful marker genes at closely spaced intervals on all chromosomes. This would be used in mapping the many genes that will continue to be isolated and identified in the future particularly those involved in causing disease?

a.       Karyotype

b.      Human Genome Project

c.       Mendelian inheritance

d.      Non Mendelian Inheretance

 

71.   Which is successful product of recombinant DNA technology?

a.       Insulin as product of bacteria for treatment of diabetes

b.      Human growth hormone for stunted growth and midgets

c.       Vaccine for hepatitis B

d.      All of these

 

72.   Which is NOT a source of stem cells or unidentified cells?

a.       Embryo

b.      Umbilical cord

c.        somatic cells

d.      None of these

 

73.   Which genes can be microinjected into eggs of animals to produce larger transgenic fishes, cows, pigs and other transgenic animals?

a.       Porcine Growth Factor

b.      Bovine Growth Hormones

c.       Suicide Genes

d.      Apolipoproteins

 

74.   Which concerns are under debate in creating Genetically Modified Animals?

a.       Ecological disaster awaits due to across pollination

b.      Health vigor may arise upon eating GMOs

c.       GMOs transgenic traits may spread into wild animals if it escapes disrupting ecological balance

d.      Both A and B

 

75.   How do scientists propose to prevent rejection of the organ transplant from pigs and other animals (xenotransplantation)?

I.        Delete the pig gene from the enzyme that causes rejection.

II.      Add human genetic materials to disguise the pig cells as human cells.

III.    Take drugs that suppress the immune response.

IV.    Clone humans that can be source of organs.

V.      Use seaweeds that are not recognized by antibodies

 

a.        1, 2, 3, and 5

b.      1 and 2

c.       1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

d.      1 only

 

76.   Which is not a product of recombinant DNA technology, plant cell culture or cellular cloning?

a.       Mule from hybrid of horse and donkey

b.      Painkillers from poison frogs and anticoagulants from ticks

c.       Dolly and Polly

d.      Antioxidant enzyme from fungus

 

77.   Which bacterium is adept at the chemical process that has been genetically engineered to use components of oil spills as a food source?

a.       Pseudomonas sp

b.      Agrobacter tumefaciens

c.       Saccharomyces cereviside

d.      Acetobacter oryzae

 

78.   What is the moral issue in using stem cells or undifferentiated cells found in human embryo for gene therapy?

a.       There are stem cells in the bone marrow which all blood cells are derived

b.      Embryological cells may not be able to differentiate once implanted with other cells.

c.       To be able to get the unspecialized cells from the embryo, the embryo must be aborted.

d.      There is no moral issue because embryos are not considered human yet.

 

79.   Which type of immunization are vaccines for tetanus and whooping cough?

i.         Artificial

ii.       Natural

iii.      Chemical killed

iv.     Attenuated

v.       Active

vi.     Passive

 

a.       I, III, and V

b.      II, IV and VI

c.       I, IV and VI

d.      II, III, and VI

 

80.   Which of these statements describes an Igneous rock?

a.       It is usually formed in layers

b.      It contains remains of plants and animals

c.       It is formed sedimentary and metamorphic rocks

d.      It is formed from magma that cooled below the Earth’s surface

 

81.   While digging the ground, some men found a large of rock. They broke off a piece and saw some fossils in it. What kind of rocks was it?

a.       Igneous

b.      Sedimentary

c.       Metamorphic

d.      Extrusive igneous

 

82.   Which of these is classified as igneous rock?

a.       Sandstone

b.      Marble

c.       Granite

d.      Limestone

 

 

83.   What kind of rocks is formed from sediments deposited in bodies of water?

a.       Extrusive rock

b.      Igneous rock

c.       Metamorphic rock

d.      Sedimentary

 

84.   Which describes a metamorphic rock?

a.       It is very hard

b.      It has several layers

c.       It is formed under the Earth’s surface

d.      It consists of large crystals of minerals

 

85.   What causes weathering?

a.       Plants

b.      Human activities

c.       Elements of weather

d.      All of these

 

86.   From what kind of rock is a metamorphic rock formed?

a.       Igneous rock

b.      Sedimentary rock

c.       Metamorphic rock

d.      All of these

 

87.   Which of the following processes is not aided by solar energy?

a.       Rock cycle

b.      Water cycle

c.       Weathering

d.      None of these

 

88.   Which of the following is a part of the water cycle/

a.       Evaporation

b.      Condensation

c.       Precipitation

d.      All of these

 

89.   Which can aid in the formation of metamorphic rock?

a.       They all contain fossils

b.      They are formed by compaction

c.       They are deposited in bodies of water

d.      they are composed of small particles

 

90.   which is the characteristic of intrusive rocks?

a.       They usually large

b.      They are found on Earth’s surface

c.       They are located under a layer of sedimentary rock.

d.      All of these